If the fasting of one who enters the day’s fast in a state of janabah is valid, how is the following hadith explained and does it pose a difference of opinion in the matter?

Find answers

“Whoever wakes up in janabah, there is no fasting for him.” [Bukhari]

This refers to the one who wakes up in a state of janabah due to intercourse and continues the act after fajr. Therefore, there are no conflicting views on the matter.

Previous If one is in a state of janabah and does not perform ghusl before fajr time has entered, is his/her fasting valid?
Next In the case of expiation due to intercourse by means of feeding, is it required to feed sixty poor Muslim people or would it suffice to only feed one?