If the fasting of one who enters the day’s fast in a state of janabah is valid, how is the following hadith explained and does it pose a difference of opinion in the matter?

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“Whoever wakes up in janabah, there is no fasting for him.” [Bukhari]

This refers to the one who wakes up in a state of janabah due to intercourse and continues the act after fajr. Therefore, there are no conflicting views on the matter.

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